World Cup Trivia Thread - SJS Format

[irfan]

first time a substitute scored when coming on after 85 min (Fred BRA vs AUS) since 86.

 

[Pedro Delgado]

Is it something to do with France?

GOT IT Henry scoring!

Last man was Manuel Amoros in extra time of the 1986 3rd place playoff.

(GBW)

France '98 sort of passed you by then, if you mean what I think.

 

[Jamee999]

Answer edited.

 

[BoyBrumby]

Is it something to do with France?

GOT IT Henry scoring!

Last man was Manuel Amoros in extra time of the 1986 3rd place playoff.

(GBW)

EDIT: France scoring in World Cups outside France!

Yep. Well done.

Your turn.

 

[Jamee999]

Pass.

 

[GIMH]

Booooooooooooooooooooo!!!!

 

[BoyBrumby]

I'll step up then.

This has only ever happened once, in 1970, but could still happen in 2006. What am I talking about?

 

[wpdavid]

I'll step up then.

This has only ever happened once, in 1970, but could still happen in 2006. What am I talking about?

A player scoring in every round?

 

[GIMH]

IS it an individual feat?

 

[BoyBrumby]

A player scoring in every round?

No.

IS it an individual feat?

No.

 

[GIMH]

Is it something that the team who achieved it would be proud of?

 

[BoyBrumby]

Is it something that the team who achieved it would be proud of?

Yes. But it's not just one team who achieve it.

 

[GIMH]

Right, I'm guessing it's something to do with the two teams who reach the final. Perhaps 1970 is the only time where the two teams in the final beat the teams who competed in the previous final along the way. Bit of a long-shot like! ie in 1970 Brazil beat England in the Group stage, and Italy knocked out West germany. This time round if it were, for example an Argentina-France final, they would have achieved this feat.

I'm gonna guess that my guess is wrong, so I'll just ask, am I right with it being to do with the two teams reaching the final?

 

[wpdavid]

A country can win the trophy for the 3rd time & gets to keep it?

 

[LongHopCassidy]

Something about keeping the Jules Rimet or the modern equivalent?

 

[BoyBrumby]

Right, I'm guessing it's something to do with the two teams who reach the final. Perhaps 1970 is the only time where the two teams in the final beat the teams who competed in the previous final along the way. Bit of a long-shot like! ie in 1970 Brazil beat England in the Group stage, and Italy knocked out West germany. This time round if it were, for example an Argentina-France final, they would have achieved this feat.

I'm gonna guess that my guess is wrong, so I'll just ask, am I right with it being to do with the two teams reaching the final?

No, not the final. Warm tho.

A country can win the trophy for the 3rd time & gets to keep it?

Not the one I had in mind, although Jerry, Brazil & Argentina have all won the current one twice so it could well be true too.

Something about keeping the Jules Rimet or the modern equivalent?

No.

 

[GIMH]

Is it something to do with the teams reaching the semis? Can't think what mind, the semi-finalists in 1970 were Italy, Brazil, West germany and U-R-gay. Hmmph.

 

[wpdavid]

Something to do with the semi's then?

In 1970 that was Brazil, Uruguay, Italy & W. Germany. All former winners, but I think that happened in 1990 too. All unbeaten, but that must have happened as well.

 

[GIMH]

Two good points, never thought of them

 

[BoyBrumby]

Something to do with the semi's then?

In 1970 that was Brazil, Uruguay, Italy & W. Germany. All former winners, but I think that happened in 1990 too. All unbeaten, but that must have happened as well.

Yep, that was what I was after & you got there despite my shoddy question. If Ukraine & Portugal are out all four semi-finalists are previous winners.

1990 completely slipped my mind. D'oh. That researcher's sacked!

Your turn.