Watching it, I don't even think Stokes was trying to make his ground. He's seen the ball launched back at his direction, and twisted his body in a protective way and stuck a hand out as instinct to try and keep it away - all he knows when its thrown is its heading his way, he won't have been able to see the exact line it was travelling that quick - though bloody good guess by getting his hand on it! I don't think he's tried to catch it, merely when it hits his palm the muscles have naturally contracted a bit and it looks like an attempted catch (you punch your hand and your muscles will naturally curl around the fist, unless you are trying otherwise). To me, he lands, then as a secondary thought moves the bat to the crease as his cricketing instinct kicks in. I feel it was a purely evasive movement
From Starcs POV, he's got a batsman out of his crease, and he launches an accurate throw at the stumps. He has a clear shot at the stumps, and he isn't aiming at anything but them. If a batsman is scared then that's not his fault, nor should he feel he is impeded by it. He's every right to feel aggrieved that a dismissal has been denied by a deliberate action of an opponant - I'm not saying Stokes has made a deliberate action to stop the ball, but the decision to make an evasive move is a deliberate action, and that has lead to the ball being stopped. There is a difference, but from Starcs POV the result is the same, Stokes has flung himself for whatever reason and its stopped his run out.
The interpretation of this reminds me of football and penalties for deliberate handball - its very rare its 'deliberate' in how fans interpret it to mean 'they meant to handle it'. However referee's logic is
A) Was the attacker impeded by a defenders decision to place their hand in an unnatural position (not by their side, or protecting face) which lead to the ball being handled, whether that was the intent of the defender or not?
B) Had the ball followed a trajectory that intended to put it through that point (i.e., it hasn't hit a divot or bounced off another's leg etc.)?
C) Was it struck with genuine desire to advance play fairly (i.e. not aiming for the hand to deliberately win a penalty).
Usually if all these are true, the ref will give a pen, and get his parentage called into question by a number of drunken yobbos.
I say its fair to apply the same logic when looking at this rule, as 'wilfully' and 'deliberately' have similar (though not 100% identical) meanings, and are both modes of decision based on deciding if an infringement took place.
So for A), Stokes may be the attacker when he strikes the ball, but that ends when Starc stops his shot, and he can be considered the attacker from that moment (a fraction of a second before he launches his attack on the stumps). It's clear his attack is impeded. It's also fair to call Stokes' hand position unnatural – It's not beside his body, or protecting vital parts of his body. Without the hand being so far out, the ball would not have touched Stokes (again, Stokes may not know that, but it is a fact)
Its also clear Stokes' movements were decided upon – as in he hadn't accidentally fallen over. I would say this lead to the ball being handled, though Stokes probably did not mean to (or, possibly, he had not had time to think of the consequences and withdraw the hand before it was stuck. The thought process 'Damn, thats coming at me and could hurt, I'll push it away, oh **** no that'll get me in trouble, oh too late' would explain an outstretched hand without impinging on Stokes character). I am not saying Stokes' 100% intended on his hand being there, but he's made a wilful movement based on his assessment of the situation, and his body has ended up in that position solely because of that.
For B), It's clear Starc wanted the ball to go the way it did, no hitting a foothole/fielders shoe/low flying pidgeon and diverting.
Its also very safe to presume for C) that Starc was trying for a dismissal through run not, not obstruction, nor was he trying to hurt Stokes.
As such, I back the umpires decision to call this as a dismissal. Stokes had every right to stand his ground and even appeal it was an accident to the umpire (talk of him walking is stupid), however if the umpire decides 'you may not have intended to break the rule, but your actions did break it, so I'm dismissing you' then the team should accept that and seek any discussion over the rules after the game.
I know some will argue the word wilfully means that the batsman must've had intent to cause the outcome that occurred, but I disagree. The rules are to govern the playing of a match, and as such an action may be accidental but still breaks the rules. An intent is an outright attempt to distort the 'spirit of the game' and are dealt with elsewhere, such as match referee's and disciplinary panels. I believe the spirit of the wording is that the word wilfully is to be applied as 'anything that's not an uncontrollable event (such as falling over, ball hitting a divot etc etc). Furthermore IMO arguing over the semantics of a word in the rules and its interpretation is probably more against the spirit of fair play than anything. Writing a set of rules that are clear is very tough, to get them brief enough to be understood doubly so – there has to be a level of implied meaning in there, otherwise rule books would be the size of dictionaries to cover every single scenario and interpretation, and thus inaccessible for a person wanting to learn.
Obstruction sounds such a negative and deliberate attempt to break the rules, and I can understand a batsman upset at being label as this. However an obstruction is just a blockage in fancy letters, and Stokes can have no shame in the way he acted, it's just fate dealt him a ****ty hand and ended up leading to him being dismissed.