My philosophy is pretty simple: strike rate is meaningless if you're all out (before the 45th).
Forcing yourself to go at 8 an over in the first 10 is useless if you lose 4 wickets in doing so, because Anderson and Ronchi sure aren't batting out 40 overs from there very often.
So Dan thinks that SR is meaningless if you're all out before the 45th over.
I assumed you were capable enough to recognise that I was referring to the first innings, but hey, if I have to be patronisingly specific, I guess I have to be patronisingly specific. And then I fully expect you'll complain that I'm being patronising, so it's very much damned if I do, damned if I don't.
I do not find you patronising at all Dan, your tone of expression is overtly condescending. Oh and Dan, New Zealand and Tom Latham chased and batted second in all three ODI's, so forgive my confusion.
But Dan, please explain to me why SR in the first innings is meaningless. If a team scores 10 runs an over for 40 overs, and is dismissed, is 400 not a score to be chased in the second innings? Or 8 runs an over for 44.5 overs? Is that 358/359 score not to be chased in the second innings?
How about I dumb it down even further?
I think you may have dumbed it down too far when you said that SR does not matter in the first innings. But you agree that it matters in the second innings right?
It doesn't matter how quickly you score your runs if you don't actually score any runs.
Well if you're not scoring runs, then you cannot be scoring runs quickly. But I get your gist and agree, run scoring maximisation is the objective. But 10 runs an over for 40 overs does beat 6 runs an over for 50.
Oh btw, cut out the personal insults and this bizarre "if you disagree with me you must smoke crack" thing. You're better than that and you know it.
Are you still dumbing your post down? People want to talk about Latham striking at 80 and how that is not a problem, but thats not the scoring rate he has been going at when he's doing mid and low 70's in the two losses.
We both agree that run scoring maximization is the goal ( I say it is for the team - I will give you credit and think that you do to and not for the individual) - but SR is not meaningless in achieving that end, in either innings.
A Philips curve theory to convey the idea of a trade off between run accumulation and SR for a batsman? Okay, most people understand the idea of a possible trade off represented in a L shaped curve. AB De Villiers, analogous to stagflation? You may want to think about your analogy at this point.
Is the trade off actual or real, or just predicted (and probable for lots of batsmen)? Have batting averages fallen significantly over the last ten years against the 1970s and 80's given the batting SR have increased?
I can readily accept the concept that batsmen could lose runs off their average increasing their strike rate. The question I have is about the predicted result of the trade off (or the shape of the curve(s) for teams and players individually).