Richard
Cricket Web Staff Member
That bloody death is about as murkily uncertain as that Shakespeare was even capable of literacy. Suffice to say that the accepted version of events cannot ever be unequivocally erased because there is no certainty either way, but it's very plausible that a) Marlowe did not die when he was said to have and b) Shakespeare never wrote so much as a single word, because he was not literate.Minus the bloody death.
It's a very interesting case and those who say "well historical record is accepted as that Shakespeare wrote his plays so he surely must've written them" are a) rather annoying and b) rather head-in-the-sand-esque.