Well clearly none of you are as interested in the laws of the game as you are in statistics (!).
Fred: no, no, no, no, no.
The umpire would not call Play if the striker was not ready to receive the ball, and as such it means in cricket the opening batsmen can never be out timed out. (If, the opening batsmen didn't appear, that it would be a case of investigating whether there was a refusal to play, and then looking at awarding the match, if there was such a refusal to play).
But in this situation the correct answer is:
Law 10.1(e) gives the batting captain the right to have the pitch rolled, even if this means losing playing time, if he is prevented from having it within the allotted time. This is not to be taken as extending to cases where the delay is not caused by the prevailing circumstances. If the delay was due to the groundsman not being available, or the roller not starting, he would have been prevented from having the rolling within the correct time. The same is true if there is a late declaration or forfeiture during an interval. However, once a captain knows that he has the opportunity to request rolling, there should not be, without good reason, a significant delay before he makes the request. Merely to delay the request without some special justifying circumstance cannot be construed as ‘being prevented’. It looks like a ploy to shorten the time his opponents have to bowl at his side. However, it would be impossible to lay down in Law what should be considered ‘significant delay’. It has to be the judgment of the umpires together, having discovered as best they can whether there is any satisfactory reason for the delay.
As to the action to be taken, the umpires have no authority to forbid such rolling. Therolling would have to be allowed, since there is nothing in Law permitting them to withhold it. On the other hand, if the umpires felt - as indeed they might - that the delay in making the request amounted to sharp practice, if not downright cheating, then they should together tell the captain that they considered the action unfair and they would accordingly report the matter under Law 42.18
Clearly my questions are unpopular
so anyone who has a question in mind go ahead and post it.