subshakerz
Hall of Fame Member
Yes. Even if we acknowledge that the umpiring was a factor, how do you quantify it? And if you can't, then why should Miandad be extra discredited? Especially compared to batsmen who had their own era advantages.There's no need for an explanation, as the stat, and the implicit charge underlying it is devoid of context or specific evidence of wrongdoing. It's pretty well known that there are numerous examples of suspicious results and instances where away teams were hardly done by and seemed to play 11 v 13.
Why would Miandad alone, or sometimes Pakistani players at home, or sometimes subcontinent players in general at home be more highly penalized or scrutinized than others absence of specific evidence of wrongdoing? Surely if the system of umpiring could lead to horribly biased results, then we'd have to negatively scrutinize all player records prior to 1995 and the institution of neutral umpiring.
Pointing to a single player's home record, as if he was the don of all of Pakistan during that time to get that much influence over umpires, seems oddly conspiratorial.