BoyBrumby
Englishman
Interesting. Does that mean the ICC isn't much bothered if Amir completes it then?I'm assuming its a means of ensuring they satisfactorily complete that course they've been required to do
Interesting. Does that mean the ICC isn't much bothered if Amir completes it then?I'm assuming its a means of ensuring they satisfactorily complete that course they've been required to do
Maybe I'm blind but the article (as opposed to the headline) doesnt say any such thingThey have admitted to taking money from bookmakers (they said it was because he was their agent ).
Amir accepts money from bookmaker
The fact he wasn't captain and had no previous as far as I'm aware are doubtless part of the reason - I have another theory too but have no wish to be infracted so will keep that to myselfInteresting. Does that mean the ICC isn't much bothered if Amir completes it then?
Would it have to involve monetary benefit?If something like this happened in Australia and, for example, Michael Clarke as captain ordered Pat Cummins to bowl no balls, I would be pretty upset and quite frankly insulted if at least Clarke didn't get a life ban.
You might be blind.Maybe I'm blind but the article (as opposed to the headline) doesnt say any such thing
I'm only guessing here, but I'd imagine there wasn't enough evidence of wrong doing in their cases.Btw... why have there been no action taken against the likes of Kamran Akmal and Wahab 'Jacket' Riaz...?
hmmm........the video showing Riaz looked quite damning. I wonder how he got away with it? And if the video was made up or something then why didn't he sue NOTW?I'm only guessing here, but I'd imagine there wasn't enough evidence of wrong doing in their cases.
Does perhaps point to there being further evidence regarding those banned that isn't yet in the public domain.
Did Mark Waugh and Shane Warne not admit to doing the same ,which was conveniently revealed 5 years after by CA? And he wasn't even the agent?They have admitted to taking money from bookmakers (they said it was because he was their agent ).
Amir accepts money from bookmaker
true......Mark Waugh and Shane Warne were very lucky to get away with not even a slap on the wrist.Did Mark Waugh and Shane Warne not admit to doing the same ,which was conveniently revealed 5 years after by CA? And he wasn't even the agent?
It looked damning and we all know that he did it, but no court of law would find him guilty for it. A competent lawyer could easily get him off the hook by saying that he took the jacked for other reasons and that he didn't know about the cash in the jackethmmm........the video showing Riaz looked quite damning. I wonder how he got away with it? And if the video was made up or something then why didn't he sue NOTW?
There were a couple of things in their favour. They only accept money for weather reports and to say who was twelfth man, never to manipulate a match that I am aware of. Secondly, they reported to the relevant authorities what they had done without any prompting.true......Mark Waugh and Shane Warne were very lucky to get away with not even a slap on the wrist.
I disagree. To my mind the relevant section is likely to be sub-section (1)(b). Seems to me that the facts of the case seem to fit within that quite neatly, either by way of an offence or an attempted offence, even if what they were participating in was in fact just a "demonstration".let's have a look at the section 42 of the Gambling Act 2005:
Cheating
(1)A person commits an offence if he—
(a)cheats at gambling, or
(b)does anything for the purpose of enabling or assisting another person to cheat at gambling.
(2)For the purposes of subsection (1) it is immaterial whether a person who cheats—
(a)improves his chances of winning anything, or
(b)wins anything.
(3)Without prejudice to the generality of subsection (1) cheating at gambling may, in particular, consist of actual or attempted deception or interference in connection with—
(a)the process by which gambling is conducted, or
(b)a real or virtual game, race or other event or process to which gambling relates.
(4)A person guilty of an offence under this section shall be liable—
(a)on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years, to a fine or to both, or
(b)on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 51 weeks, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or to both.
(5)In the application of subsection (4) to Scotland the reference to 51 weeks shall have effect as a reference to six months.
(6)Section 17 of the Gaming Act 1845 (c. 109) (winning by cheating) shall cease to have effect.
The real concern for the trio is the highlighted part; section 3. However how can CPS prove that they were gambling or were going to gamble. Money was paid to Majeed for a demonstration.
That was a different (pre-Cronje) era. I´d expect them to be more harshly dealt with these days. And Lillee/Marsh would obviously have got banned for their famous bet on England at 500-1 had that happened today.true......Mark Waugh and Shane Warne were very lucky to get away with not even a slap on the wrist.
For 1b how were Asif and Amir enabling or assisting gambling? As I mentioned there isn't really any evidence linking them to Majeed or the money. For all we know they could have just been asked/coerced to bowl the no-ball.I disagree. To my mind the relevant section is likely to be sub-section (1)(b). Seems to me that the facts of the case seem to fit within that quite neatly, either by way of an offence or an attempted offence, even if what they were participating in was in fact just a "demonstration".
Sub-section (3) doesn´t narrow the scope of that section (see the opening words: "without prejudice to the generality of subsection (1)") but broadens it. And I don´t think that the prosecution would need to rely on sub-section 3 at all. And in any event if you read section 3, you'll see that, contrary to your suggestion, there is no requirement that the prosecution must prove that any of the trio was either "gambling or going to gamble".
Agree with you on this. Also gambling never took place,so subsection 1b isn't really relevant because it relates to actual cheating taking place. Subsection 3 on the other hand relates to attempted deception, so that is why i thought that was relevant, but maybe i read the whole thing wrong? Could someone clarify please.Could be an interesting legal argument about the requisite knowledge/intent as far as Asif and Amir are concerned
Whether any actual gambling took place is, I believe, irrelevant. I can't be bothered to check but my recollection is that this was the whole purpose of the 2005 Act, as prior to that, for a charge of Conspiracy to Defraud, the prosecution would have had to point to some actual gambling having taken placeAgree with you on this. Also gambling never took place,so subsection 1b isn't really relevant.
OK, thanks for the info. If you don't mind me asking, do you practise law in the UK?Whether any actual gambling took place is, I believe, irrelevant. I can't be bothered to check but my recollection is that this was the whole purpose of the 2005 Act, as prior to that, for a charge of Conspiracy to Defraud, the prosecution would have had to point to some actual gambling having taken place